[QE-users] How is the wavefunction supposed to be normalized?
John McFarland
jm18ec at my.fsu.edu
Tue Dec 11 19:09:13 CET 2018
Thank you!
I forgot to ask if different bands are orthogonal for the contraction over the S matrix. That is, does the code below result in a delta function of the two bs?
Also, is the one in the index of evc(1,b) a typo?
John
________________________________
From: users <users-bounces at lists.quantum-espresso.org> on behalf of Stefano de Gironcoli <degironc at sissa.it>
Sent: Tuesday, December 11, 2018 10:26:15 AM
To: users at lists.quantum-espresso.org
Subject: Re: [QE-users] How is the wavefunction supposed to be normalized?
yes, except the S matrix is never stored anywhere but is applied to the wfc by the s_1psi routine,
so more something like
sum = 0.d0
call s_1psi( npwx, npw, evc(1,b), spsi )
DO i = 1,npw
sum = sum + conjg(evc(i,b)) * spsi(i)
END DO
stefano
On 11/12/18 15:36, John McFarland wrote:
Dear all,
As I understand it, the wavefunction for each k-point is given by ecv(:,:), with the first index representing a single particle basis and the second index representing each band. I'm guessing that when a normalized wavefunction is contracted over the S matrix, the result should equal one for each band. What I think this would look like in code is:
sum = 0
DO i = 1,npwx
DO j = 1,npwx
sum = sum + evc(i,b) * S(i,j) * evc(j,b)
END DO
END DO
and sum should equal 1 for any band b. Is my understanding correct?
Best regards,
John McFarland
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